It seems that there is an error in proof of this theorem.
Alleged counter-example:
$latex f=\bot$ and $latex z(p)=\top$ for infinite sets $latex A$ and $latex B$.
I am now attempting to locate the error in the proof.
It seems that there is an error in proof of this theorem.
Alleged counter-example:
$latex f=\bot$ and $latex z(p)=\top$ for infinite sets $latex A$ and $latex B$.
I am now attempting to locate the error in the proof.
1 thought on “Error in my theorem”