It seems that there is an error in proof of this theorem.

Alleged counter-example:

$latex f=\bot$ and $latex z(p)=\top$ for infinite sets $latex A$ and $latex B$.

I am now attempting to locate the error in the proof.

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It seems that there is an error in proof of this theorem.

Alleged counter-example:

$latex f=\bot$ and $latex z(p)=\top$ for infinite sets $latex A$ and $latex B$.

I am now attempting to locate the error in the proof.

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