I started to work on funcoidal groups (a generalization of topological groups). I defined it and promptly found a curious theorem. Not sure if this theorem has use for anything.
See the definition and the “curious” proposition in this draft.
Note that I work on another projects and may be not very active in researching funcoidal groups in near time.
Can you be more specific about the content of your article? After reading it, I still have some doubts. Hope you can help me.