I’ve forgotten this conjecture when wrote Funcoids and Reloids article:

**Conjecture** $latex (\mathsf{RLD})_{\mathrm{in}} (g\circ f) = (\mathsf{RLD})_{\mathrm{in}} g\circ(\mathsf{RLD})_{\mathrm{in}} f$ for every composable funcoids $latex f$ and $latex g$.

Now this important conjecture is in its place in the article.

I am going also to spend some time attempting to prove it.

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