I’ve found a counterexample to the following conjecture:
Statement For every composable funcoids $latex f$ and $latex g$ we have
The counterexample is $latex f=a\times^{\mathsf{FCD}} \{p\}$ and $latex g=\{p\}\times^{\mathsf{FCD}}a$, $latex H=1$ where $latex a$ is an arbitrary nontrivial ultrafilter and $latex p$ is an arbitrary point.
I leave the proof that it is a counterexample as an easy exercise for the reader (however I am going to add the proof to my book soon).
That the conjecture failed invalidates my new proof of Urysohn’s lemma which was based on this conjecture.
Can you be more specific about the content of your article? After reading it, I still have some doubts. Hope you can help me.